Section I — Multiple Choice

Section II — Free Response

Section I — Multiple Choice

Section II — Free Response

AP Psychology Full Practice Exam

Section I: Multiple-Choice Questions

Time: 70 minutes | 100 questions | 66.7% of score

Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question. There is no penalty for guessing.

Questions 1–12: Scientific Foundations (Unit 1)

1. The first psychology laboratory was established by:

   (A) William James (B) Sigmund Freud (C) Wilhelm Wundt (D) John B. Watson
   

2. A psychologist observes children on a playground and records their social interactions without intervening. This is an example of:

   (A) A case study (B) Naturalistic observation (C) An experiment (D) A survey
   

3. In an experiment testing whether sleep affects memory, the independent variable is:

   (A) The participants' memory scores (B) The number of hours of sleep (C) The type of memory test (D) The participants' age
   

4. A correlation of r = +0.72 between study time and exam scores indicates:

   (A) Studying causes higher exam scores
   (B) As study time increases, exam scores tend to increase, and the relationship is strong
   (C) 72% of students study regularly
   (D) The relationship is weak and negative
   

5. Which of the following is NOT an ethical requirement for psychological research?

   (A) Informed consent (B) Debriefing after deception (C) Paying participants a fair wage (D) Protection from harm
   

6. In a positively skewed distribution of test scores:

   (A) The mean is less than the median (B) The mean equals the median (C) The mean is greater than the median (D) The mode is greater than the mean
   

7. A researcher finds that p = 0.03 for the difference between two groups. This means the result is:

   (A) Not statistically significant (B) Statistically significant at the 0.05 level
   (C) Practically significant (D) Due to a confounding variable
   

8. The process of randomly assigning participants to experimental conditions serves to:

   (A) Ensure a representative sample (B) Control for confounding variables by distributing individual differences
   (C) Increase the statistical significance of the results (D) Reduce the need for a control group
   

9. A survey conducted by asking passersby outside a shopping mall to participate would most likely suffer from:

   (A) Random assignment bias (B) Social desirability bias (C) Selection bias (D) The placebo effect
   

10. Which measure of central tendency is most affected by extreme outliers?

    (A) Median (B) Mode (C) Mean (D) Range
    

11. In a double-blind experiment:

    (A) Neither the participants nor the experimenters know who is in which condition
    (B) The participants do not know the purpose of the study
    (C) Both groups receive a placebo
    (D) The independent variable is manipulated twice
    

12. A researcher conducts a study following the same group of individuals over 20 years. This is a:

    (A) Cross-sectional study (B) Longitudinal study (C) Case study (D) Natural experiment
    

Questions 13–22: Biological Bases (Unit 2)

1. The part of the neuron that receives incoming signals is the:

   (A) Axon (B) Dendrite (C) Terminal button (D) Myelin sheath
   

2. The all-or-none principle refers to the fact that:

   (A) All neurons fire at the same speed (B) A neuron either fires completely or not at all
   (C) All neurotransmitters have the same effect (D) All brain regions process information identically
   

3. Which neurotransmitter is most associated with pleasure, reward, and addiction?

   (A) GABA (B) Serotonin (C) Dopamine (D) Acetylcholine
   

4. The amygdala is primarily involved in:

   (A) Forming new memories (B) Processing fear and emotion (C) Coordinating movement (D) Regulating sleep
   

5. A patient who can understand language but cannot produce fluent speech most likely has damage to:

   (A) Wernicke's area (B) Broca's area (C) The hippocampus (D) The cerebellum
   

6. The sympathetic nervous system is most active during:

   (A) Digestion after a meal (B) A relaxing massage
   (C) A stressful emergency (D) Falling asleep
   

7. Which of the following is the correct pathway of neural transmission?

   (A) Dendrite → axon → cell body → terminal button
   (B) Axon → dendrite → cell body → terminal button
   (C) Dendrite → cell body → axon → terminal button
   (D) Terminal button → axon → cell body → dendrite
   

8. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. A drug that enhances GABA activity would likely:

   (A) Increase alertness (B) Reduce anxiety (C) Improve memory (D) Increase heart rate
   

9. The endocrine gland that regulates metabolism is the:

   (A) Pituitary (B) Thyroid (C) Adrenal (D) Pineal
   

10. Split-brain patients (who have had their corpus callosum severed) demonstrate that:

    (A) The brain cannot function without the corpus callosum
    (B) The left hemisphere processes information from the left visual field
    (C) The two hemispheres can function independently to some degree
    (D) Language is processed in the right hemisphere
    

Questions 23–30: Sensation and Perception (Unit 3)

1. The minimum stimulus intensity needed to detect a stimulus 50% of the time is the:

   (A) Difference threshold (B) Absolute threshold (C) Just noticeable difference (D) Signal detection threshold
   

2. According to opponent-process theory, after staring at a red image, you would see an afterimage in which color?

   (A) Blue (B) Yellow (C) Green (D) White
   

3. Which of the following is a binocular depth cue?

   (A) Linear perspective (B) Interposition (C) Retinal disparity (D) Relative size
   

4. Rods are specialized for:

   (A) Color vision in bright light (B) Night vision and peripheral vision
   (C) Detecting sound waves (D) Processing taste
   

5. The gate-control theory of pain proposes that:

   (A) Pain is processed exclusively in the thalamus
   (B) Pain signals can be blocked by activity in non-painful nerve pathways
   (C) Pain receptors adapt over time like other sensory receptors
   (D) Endorphins increase pain signals
   

6. Weber's law states that the JND is a constant:

   (A) Amount regardless of stimulus intensity (B) Proportion of the original stimulus
   (C) Number of receptor cells activated (D) Frequency of neural firing
   

7. The Gestalt principle that we fill in gaps to create complete figures is:

   (A) Proximity (B) Similarity (C) Closure (D) Continuity
   

8. The sense that provides information about body position and movement is:

   (A) Vestibular sense (B) Kinesthetic sense (C) Olfaction (D) Gustation
   

Questions 31–40: Learning (Unit 4)

1. In Pavlov's experiment, the meat powder is the:

   (A) CS (B) CR (C) UCS (D) NS
   

2. A student fastens their seatbelt to stop an annoying car beep. This is:

   (A) Positive reinforcement (B) Negative reinforcement (C) Positive punishment (D) Negative punishment
   

3. Which reinforcement schedule produces the highest response rate and greatest resistance to extinction?

   (A) Fixed ratio (B) Fixed interval (C) Variable ratio (D) Continuous
   

4. The reappearance of an extinguished conditioned response after a rest period is called:

   (A) Generalization (B) Spontaneous recovery (C) Discrimination (D) Higher-order conditioning
   

5. A child who was bitten by a dog now fears all furry animals. This is:

   (A) Discrimination (B) Stimulus generalization (C) Higher-order conditioning (D) Shaping
   

6. Bandura's Bobo doll experiment demonstrated:

   (A) Classical conditioning of fear (B) Observational learning of aggression
   (C) Operant conditioning with punishment (D) Latent learning in rats
   

7. Reinforcing successive approximations of a target behavior is called:

   (A) Shaping (B) Chaining (C) Token economy (D) Classical conditioning
   

8. Garcia's taste aversion research demonstrated that:

   (A) All associations between stimuli are equally easy to learn
   (B) Biological preparedness influences which associations are learned
   (C) Rats cannot learn through classical conditioning
   (D) Taste and nausea cannot be associated
   

9. A worker is paid for every 50 items they assemble. This is a ________ schedule.

   (A) Fixed interval (B) Variable interval (C) Fixed ratio (D) Variable ratio
   

10. Tolman's research with rats in mazes demonstrated the concept of:

    (A) Classical conditioning (B) Cognitive maps (C) Operant conditioning (D) Observational learning
    

Questions 41–56: Cognitive Psychology (Unit 5)

1. The sensory memory store for visual information that lasts about 0.5 seconds is:

   (A) Echoic memory (B) Iconic memory (C) Working memory (D) Long-term memory
   

2. The capacity of short-term/working memory is approximately:

   (A) 3 ± 1 items (B) 7 ± 2 items (C) 12 ± 3 items (D) Unlimited
   

3. Procedural memories (like riding a bike) are stored primarily in the:

   (A) Hippocampus (B) Amygdala (C) Cerebellum and basal ganglia (D) Prefrontal cortex
   

4. Forgetting that occurs because information was never properly encoded into long-term memory is called:

   (A) Proactive interference (B) Retroactive interference (C) Encoding failure (D) Motivated forgetting
   

5. The mnemonic "ROY G. BIV" for the colors of the rainbow is an example of:

   (A) Chunking (B) An acronym (C) The method of loci (D) Spacing effect
   

6. Estimating the likelihood of an event based on how easily examples come to mind is the:

   (A) Representativeness heuristic (B) Availability heuristic (C) Anchoring bias (D) Confirmation bias
   

7. A person who cannot think of a new use for a paperclip beyond holding paper together is experiencing:

   (A) Functional fixedness (B) Confirmation bias (C) The availability heuristic (D) Divergent thinking
   

8. Noam Chomsky argued that children have an innate capacity for language acquisition called the:

   (A) Language Acquisition Device (B) Babbling stage (C) Critical period (D) LAD and telegraphic speech
   

9. Charles Spearman's concept of general intelligence (g) proposes that:

   (A) Intelligence consists of multiple independent abilities
   (B) A single general ability underlies performance on all cognitive tasks
   (C) Intelligence is entirely determined by environment
   (D) Intelligence cannot be measured
   

10. The tendency to remember items at the beginning and end of a list best is called:

    (A) The spacing effect (B) The serial position effect (C) The testing effect (D) State-dependent memory
    

11. Ebbinghaus's forgetting curve shows that most forgetting occurs:

    (A) Gradually over months (B) Within the first hour after learning
    (C) Only during sleep (D) After retroactive interference
    

12. Elizabeth Loftus's research demonstrated that:

    (A) Memory is an exact recording of events
    (B) Post-event misinformation can alter memory
    (C) Eyewitness testimony is always accurate
    (D) Flashbulb memories are immune to distortion
    

13. The Flynn effect refers to the observation that:

    (A) Intelligence declines with age
    (B) Average IQ scores have risen over the 20th century
    (C) Test scores are stable across generations
    (D) Anxiety reduces test performance
    

14. The statement "people who are anxious perform worse on tests" and the statement "people who perform worse on tests are more anxious" are both true. This illustrates:

    (A) Causation (B) A bidirectional relationship (C) The third-variable problem (D) The confirmation bias
    

15. A test that accurately predicts future performance (such as SAT scores predicting college GPA) has high:

    (A) Content validity (B) Predictive validity (C) Test-retest reliability (D) Construct validity
    

16. Stereotype threat occurs when:

    (A) People conform to stereotypes about outgroup members
    (B) Awareness of a negative stereotype about one's group impairs performance
    (C) People use stereotypes to make quick judgments
    (D) Stereotypes are reinforced by the media
    

Questions 57–66: Developmental Psychology (Unit 6)

1. According to Piaget, object permanence develops during which stage?

   (A) Preoperational (B) Sensorimotor (C) Concrete operational (D) Formal operational
   

2. Vygotsky's zone of proximal development refers to:

   (A) What a child can do independently
   (B) What a child can do with guidance minus what they can do independently
   (C) The age range during which language must be acquired
   (D) The period of attachment formation
   

3. Mary Ainsworth's strange situation assesses:

   (A) Cognitive development (B) Attachment quality (C) Moral reasoning (D) Language acquisition
   

4. A parent who is demanding but also warm and responsive is using which parenting style?

   (A) Authoritative (B) Authoritarian (C) Permissive (D) Neglectful
   

5. According to Erikson, the central conflict of adolescence is:

   (A) Industry vs. inferiority (B) Identity vs. role confusion
   (C) Intimacy vs. isolation (D) Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
   

6. Harlow's monkey studies demonstrated that attachment is based on:

   (A) Feeding (B) Contact comfort (C) Imprinting (D) Operant conditioning
   

7. A child who says "I not want that" is likely in which stage of language development?

   (A) Babbling (B) One-word (C) Two-word (D) Telegraphic speech
   

8. Conservation is a key achievement of which Piagetian stage?

   (A) Sensorimotor (B) Preoperational (C) Concrete operational (D) Formal operational
   

9. Kohlberg's postconventional level of moral reasoning is characterized by:

   (A) Obedience to avoid punishment (B) Following laws to maintain social order
   (C) Following self-chosen ethical principles that may override laws
   (D) Seeking social approval
   

10. Erikson's concept of generativity vs. stagnation applies to which life stage?

    (A) Adolescence (B) Young adulthood (C) Middle adulthood (D) Late adulthood
    

Questions 67–78: Motivation, Emotion, and Personality (Unit 7)

1. According to Maslow's hierarchy, which need must be met before a person can pursue self-actualization?

   (A) Only physiological needs (B) All lower-level needs at least partially
   (C) Only esteem needs (D) Self-actualization has no prerequisites
   

2. The James-Lange theory of emotion proposes the sequence:

   (A) Stimulus → emotion → physiological response
   (B) Stimulus → physiological response → emotion
   (C) Stimulus → arousal + emotion simultaneously
   (D) Stimulus → cognitive appraisal → emotion → arousal
   

3. A person who is intensely jealous of a coworker accuses the coworker of being jealous of them. This defense mechanism is:

   (A) Projection (B) Displacement (C) Rationalization (D) Reaction formation
   

4. Which Big Five trait involves being curious, imaginative, and open to new experiences?

   (A) Conscientiousness (B) Extraversion (C) Openness to experience (D) Agreeableness
   

5. Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome consists of which stages in order?

   (A) Resistance, alarm, exhaustion (B) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion
   (C) Alarm, exhaustion, resistance (D) Exhaustion, resistance, alarm
   

6. Bandura's concept of reciprocal determinism states that personality is shaped by the interaction of:

   (A) Id, ego, and superego (B) Personal factors, behavior, and environment
   (C) Unconscious conflicts and defense mechanisms (D) Genetics and environment only
   

7. The ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) is associated with:

   (A) Hunger stimulation (B) Satiety (feeling full)
   (C) Thirst (D) Sexual motivation
   

8. Which coping strategy directly addresses the source of stress?

   (A) Problem-focused coping (B) Emotion-focused coping (C) Repression (D) Rationalization
   

9. A person with an internal locus of control believes that:

   (A) External forces determine their outcomes (B) They control their own outcomes
   (C) Luck is the primary factor in success (D) They have no influence over events
   

10. Schachter-Singer's two-factor theory of emotion states that emotion requires:

    (A) Only physiological arousal (B) Only a cognitive label
    (C) Physiological arousal plus a cognitive label (D) An unconscious stimulus
    

11. Freud's concept of the id operates on the:

    (A) Reality principle (B) Pleasure principle (C) Morality principle (D) Social principle
    

12. A person who channels aggressive impulses into competitive sports is using which defense mechanism?

    (A) Displacement (B) Denial (C) Sublimation (D) Projection
    

Questions 79–90: Clinical Psychology (Unit 8)

1. Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

   (A) Flat affect (B) Avolition (C) Hallucinations (D) Alogia
   

2. Systematic desensitization is used to treat:

   (A) Schizophrenia (B) Phobias (C) Depression (D) Bipolar disorder
   

3. SSRIs work by:

   (A) Blocking dopamine receptors (B) Blocking serotonin reuptake
   (C) Enhancing GABA activity (D) Stabilizing mood by unknown mechanisms
   

4. Which personality disorder is characterized by a pattern of disregard for others' rights and lack of remorse?

   (A) Borderline personality disorder (B) Antisocial personality disorder
   (C) Narcissistic personality disorder (D) Avoidant personality disorder
   

5. Bipolar disorder is distinguished from major depressive disorder by the presence of:

   (A) Psychotic symptoms (B) Manic or hypomanic episodes
   (C) Anxiety symptoms (D) Somatic complaints
   

6. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) combines techniques from:

   (A) Psychoanalysis and humanism (B) Cognitive and behavioral approaches
   (C) Biomedical and psychoanalytic approaches (D) Humanistic and behavioral approaches
   

7. A therapist who provides unconditional positive regard, empathy, and genuineness is using:

   (A) Psychoanalysis (B) Client-centered therapy (C) Cognitive therapy (D) Behavior therapy
   

8. Lithium is primarily used as a treatment for:

   (A) Schizophrenia (B) Bipolar disorder (C) Major depression (D) Anxiety disorders
   

9. The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia proposes that:

   (A) Low dopamine causes schizophrenia (B) Excess dopamine activity contributes to symptoms
   (C) Dopamine is unrelated to schizophrenia (D) Serotonin is the primary factor
   

10. Dissociative identity disorder involves:

    (A) Loss of memory for personal information
    (B) Two or more distinct identities that alternately control behavior
    (C) Excessive worry about multiple areas of life
    (D) Fear of open spaces
    

11. Deinstitutionalization refers to the:

    (A) Closing of all psychiatric hospitals
    (B) Movement to release patients into community-based care
    (C) Use of outpatient therapy instead of medication
    (D) Elimination of the DSM diagnostic system
    

12. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is most commonly used to treat:

    (A) Schizophrenia (B) Severe depression (C) Anxiety disorders (D) Personality disorders
    

Questions 91–100: Social Psychology (Unit 9)

1. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to:

   (A) Attribute our failures to external factors (B) Overemphasize dispositional factors when explaining others' behavior
   (C) Underestimate the power of the situation (D) Both B and C
   

2. In Asch's conformity experiment, participants were most likely to conform when:

   (A) They wrote their answers privately (B) There was even one dissenter in the group
   (C) The group was large and unanimous (D) The task was very easy
   

3. Cognitive dissonance theory (Festinger) proposes that:

   (A) People seek to maintain consistent cognitions
   (B) People always act rationally
   (C) Attitudes cannot change after behavior
   (D) Emotions have no influence on cognitions
   

4. Milgram's obedience study found that approximately what percentage of participants administered the maximum shock?

   (A) 10% (B) 35% (C) 65% (D) 95%
   

5. The bystander effect is explained by:

   (A) Social facilitation (B) Diffusion of responsibility
   (C) Deindividuation (D) Group polarization
   

6. Groupthink is most likely to occur when:

   (A) Group members have diverse opinions
   (B) The group is cohesive, has a directive leader, and is isolated
   (C) Decisions are made by anonymous voting
   (D) The group is very large
   

7. The mere exposure effect refers to the finding that:

   (A) Repeated exposure to a stimulus increases liking for it
   (B) First impressions are the most important
   (C) Physical attractiveness determines social outcomes
   (D) People prefer those who are similar to themselves
   

8. Prejudice is to attitude as discrimination is to:

   (A) Belief (B) Behavior (C) Emotion (D) Cognition
   

9. A person who argues that poor people are poor because they are lazy is demonstrating the:

   (A) Just-world phenomenon (B) Self-serving bias (C) Fundamental attribution error (D) Bystander effect
   

10. Sternberg's triangular theory of love includes which three components?

    (A) Passion, intimacy, and commitment (B) Love, friendship, and respect
    (C) Attraction, proximity, and similarity (D) Passion, loyalty, and trust
    

Section II: Free-Response Questions

Time: 50 minutes | 2 questions | 33.3% of score

FRQ 1

Dr. Martinez is conducting a research study on the effects of sleep deprivation on memory. She randomly assigns 80 college students to either sleep for 8 hours or stay awake for 24 hours. After the sleep manipulation, all participants study a list of 30 words for 10 minutes. One hour later, they are asked to recall as many words as possible. Dr. Martinez finds that the well-rested group recalled significantly more words (M = 22) than the sleep-deprived group (M = 15), with p < 0.001.

One participant, Alex, is in the sleep-deprived group. Alex studies in the library every day and typically gets 8 hours of sleep. During the study, Alex feels anxious and frustrated because they cannot remember the words as well as usual. After the study, Alex tells friends, "I did poorly because I was in the bad group." When Alex studies for the next exam, they make sure to get a full night's sleep.

(a) Identify the independent variable and the dependent variable in Dr. Martinez's study.

(b) Explain why Dr. Martinez used random assignment in this study.

(c) Explain the memory concept that best accounts for why the sleep-deprived group recalled fewer words.

(d) Identify the attribution bias Alex is demonstrating when explaining poor performance.

(e) Explain how Alex's behavior after the study (ensuring a full night's sleep for the next exam) could be understood through classical conditioning.

FRQ 2

Ms. Johnson notices that her student, Taylor, has been struggling in class. Taylor has difficulty paying attention, often stares out the window, and occasionally disrupts other students. When Ms. Johnson talks to Taylor privately, Taylor says, "I can't help it — I'm just a bad student. I always mess everything up. Nothing I do matters anyway."

Ms. Johnson decides to try several approaches. First, she creates a system where Taylor earns points for staying on task, and after earning 20 points, Taylor can choose a fun classroom activity. Ms. Johnson also encourages Taylor to challenge the thought "I always mess everything up" by keeping a daily log of successful moments. Ms. Johnson pairs Taylor with a classmate who is good at staying focused, and Taylor begins to imitate the classmate's on-task behavior. Taylor's mother mentions that Taylor's older sibling was diagnosed with ADHD.

(a) Explain Taylor's statement from the perspective of learned helplessness.

(b) Identify the operant conditioning procedure Ms. Johnson is using with the point system.

(c) Identify the reinforcement schedule if Taylor earns points for every 20 minutes of on-task behavior.

(d) Explain how the cognitive approach Ms. Johnson uses (challenging negative thoughts) relates to Aaron Beck's theory of depression.

(e) Explain how Taylor learning from the classmate illustrates Bandura's observational learning, including two specific processes from Bandura's theory.

(f) Explain how Taylor's family history relates to the concept of heritability.