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Paper A

AP Microeconomics — Practice Paper A

Original unofficial practice questions · paper A · answer key on the last page

Total time: see section headers · No guessing penalty

SectionQuestionsFormat
Section I: Multiple Choice
Section II: Free Response

Section I — Multiple Choice

1.

Opportunity cost is the

A. value of the next best alternativeB. money spentC. total costD. sunk cost
Answer:
2.

The law of demand says price up leads to

A. quantity demanded downB. quantity demanded upC. no changeD. demand shift up
Answer:
3.

A price ceiling below equilibrium causes

A. a shortageB. a surplusC. equilibriumD. tax revenue
Answer:
4.

The point where MR = MC is where a firm

A. maximizes profitB. minimizes losses alwaysC. shuts downD. sets price
Answer:
5.

A monopoly has

A. no close substitutesB. many competitorsC. price takersD. elastic demand
Answer:
6.

The price elasticity of demand is high when the good has

A. close substitutesB. no substitutesC. inelastic needsD. fixed prices
Answer:
7.

At the efficient (allocatively efficient) output,

A. P = MCB. P > MCC. MC = AVCD. MR > price
Answer:
8.

A subsidy to producers shifts

A. supply rightB. demand leftC. price upD. quantity down
Answer:
9.

Negative externalities imply output is

A. too highB. too lowC. efficientD. zero
Answer:
10.

In the short run, a firm in perfect competition

A. produces if P > AVCB. always shuts downC. sets any priceD. has huge profits
Answer:

Section II — Free Response

1.

Sketch and label market equilibrium; then show the effect of a $5 per-unit tax on suppliers on price and quantity.

6 points · rubric: Initial eq 2 pts, tax shift 2 pts, outcomes 2 pts.

2.

Explain how a monopolist chooses output and price, and why allocative inefficiency results.

5 points · rubric: MR=MC 2 pts, price on demand 2 pts, inefficiency 1 pt.

Answer Key

1. value of the next best alternative — Foregone alternative.

2. quantity demanded down — Inverse relation.

3. a shortage — Quantity demanded > supplied.

4. maximizes profit — Profit rule.

5. no close substitutes — Unique product.

6. close substitutes — Substitutable goods.

7. P = MC — Social optimum.

8. supply right — Increases supply.

9. too high — Overproduction.

10. produces if P > AVC — Shutdown rule.

Free response — rubric notes

1. Initial eq 2 pts, tax shift 2 pts, outcomes 2 pts. · model: Tax raises supply curve up by $5; equilibrium price rises, quantity falls; incidence split by elasticities.

2. MR=MC 2 pts, price on demand 2 pts, inefficiency 1 pt. · model: Chooses where MR=MC, charges that quantity's demand price; P > MC leaves deadweight loss.

Paper B

AP Microeconomics — Practice Paper B

Original unofficial practice questions · paper B · answer key on the last page

Total time: see section headers · No guessing penalty

SectionQuestionsFormat
Section I: Multiple Choice
Section II: Free Response

Section I — Multiple Choice

1.

Opportunity cost is the

A. sunk costB. money spentC. value of the next best alternativeD. total cost
Answer:
2.

The law of demand says price up leads to

A. quantity demanded upB. no changeC. demand shift upD. quantity demanded down
Answer:
3.

A price ceiling below equilibrium causes

A. a surplusB. a shortageC. tax revenueD. equilibrium
Answer:
4.

The point where MR = MC is where a firm

A. sets priceB. shuts downC. maximizes profitD. minimizes losses always
Answer:
5.

A monopoly has

A. price takersB. no close substitutesC. many competitorsD. elastic demand
Answer:
6.

The price elasticity of demand is high when the good has

A. inelastic needsB. fixed pricesC. close substitutesD. no substitutes
Answer:
7.

At the efficient (allocatively efficient) output,

A. P > MCB. MR > priceC. MC = AVCD. P = MC
Answer:
8.

A subsidy to producers shifts

A. quantity downB. supply rightC. price upD. demand left
Answer:
9.

Negative externalities imply output is

A. too lowB. efficientC. too highD. zero
Answer:
10.

In the short run, a firm in perfect competition

A. always shuts downB. has huge profitsC. sets any priceD. produces if P > AVC
Answer:

Section II — Free Response

1.

Sketch and label market equilibrium; then show the effect of a $5 per-unit tax on suppliers on price and quantity.

6 points · rubric: Initial eq 2 pts, tax shift 2 pts, outcomes 2 pts.

2.

Explain how a monopolist chooses output and price, and why allocative inefficiency results.

5 points · rubric: MR=MC 2 pts, price on demand 2 pts, inefficiency 1 pt.

Answer Key

1. value of the next best alternative — Foregone alternative.

2. quantity demanded down — Inverse relation.

3. a shortage — Quantity demanded > supplied.

4. maximizes profit — Profit rule.

5. no close substitutes — Unique product.

6. close substitutes — Substitutable goods.

7. P = MC — Social optimum.

8. supply right — Increases supply.

9. too high — Overproduction.

10. produces if P > AVC — Shutdown rule.

Free response — rubric notes

1. Initial eq 2 pts, tax shift 2 pts, outcomes 2 pts. · model: Tax raises supply curve up by $5; equilibrium price rises, quantity falls; incidence split by elasticities.

2. MR=MC 2 pts, price on demand 2 pts, inefficiency 1 pt. · model: Chooses where MR=MC, charges that quantity's demand price; P > MC leaves deadweight loss.

Full-length study package exam

AP Microeconomics — Full Practice Exam

60 Multiple-Choice Questions + 3 Free-Response Questions

Time: 70 minutes (MCQ) + 60 minutes (FRQ) Weighting: MCQ = 66.7% of score, FRQ = 33.3%

Instructions: Do NOT use a calculator unless specifically noted. Answer all MCQ questions by selecting the best response. For FRQ, show all work and label graphs clearly.


MULTIPLE-CHOICE SECTION (60 Questions, 70 Minutes)

Basic Economic Concepts (Questions 1–10)

1. Scarcity exists because:

  • (A) Human wants are unlimited and resources are limited
  • (B) Governments print too little money
  • (C) Technology has not advanced enough
  • (D) Some people are poor
  • (E) Resources are evenly distributed

    2. On a production possibilities curve, a point inside the curve represents:

  • (A) Efficient production
  • (B) Inefficient production (underutilization of resources)
  • (C) Unattainable production given current resources
  • (D) Economic growth
  • (E) Full employment

    3. Country A can produce 100 cars or 50 trucks. Country B can produce 80 cars or 40 trucks. Which of the following is true?

  • (A) Country A has a comparative advantage in both goods
  • (B) Country A has an absolute advantage in both goods
  • (C) Both countries have the same opportunity cost for each good
  • (D) Neither country has a comparative advantage
  • (E) Country B should specialize in car production

    4. The opportunity cost of producing one additional unit of Good X is:

  • (A) The monetary price of Good X
  • (B) The value of the next best alternative forgone
  • (C) The total cost of all units of Good X produced
  • (D) The difference between the price of Good X and Good Y
  • (E) Always increasing

    5. Which of the following would cause the PPC to shift outward?

  • (A) A decrease in the unemployment rate
  • (B) An increase in consumer demand
  • (C) Technological improvement in the production of both goods
  • (D) A shift of resources from military to civilian production
  • (E) An increase in the price level

    6. An increase in the price of coffee (a normal good) will cause:

  • (A) An increase in demand for coffee
  • (B) A decrease in demand for coffee
  • (C) A decrease in the quantity demanded of coffee
  • (D) An increase in the supply of coffee
  • (E) A decrease in the supply of coffee

    7. If tea and coffee are substitutes, a decrease in the price of tea will:

  • (A) Increase the demand for coffee
  • (B) Decrease the demand for coffee
  • (C) Increase the supply of coffee
  • (D) Decrease the quantity demanded of coffee
  • (E) Have no effect on the coffee market

    8. A market is in equilibrium when:

  • (A) Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied
  • (B) The price is zero
  • (C) Government sets the price
  • (D) Consumer surplus is maximized
  • (E) Producer surplus is maximized

    9. A binding price ceiling set below the equilibrium price will result in:

  • (A) A surplus
  • (B) A shortage
  • (C) No change in the market
  • (D) An increase in equilibrium quantity
  • (E) A decrease in demand

    10. A binding price floor set above the equilibrium price will result in:

  • (A) A surplus
  • (B) A shortage
  • (C) Market clearing
  • (D) An increase in demand
  • (E) A decrease in supply

Supply and Demand (Questions 11–20)

11. If the price elasticity of demand for a good is 2.5, demand is:

  • (A) Inelastic
  • (B) Unit elastic
  • (C) Elastic
  • (D) Perfectly elastic
  • (E) Perfectly inelastic

    12. If a 10% increase in the price of a good leads to a 2% decrease in quantity demanded, the demand is:

  • (A) Elastic (Ed = 5.0)
  • (B) Inelastic (Ed = 0.2)
  • (C) Unit elastic (Ed = 1.0)
  • (D) Perfectly inelastic (Ed = 0)
  • (E) Perfectly elastic (Ed = ∞)

    13. Total revenue will increase if price increases and demand is:

  • (A) Elastic
  • (B) Inelastic
  • (C) Unit elastic
  • (D) Perfectly elastic
  • (E) Perfectly inelastic but only if price was zero

    14. The cross-price elasticity of demand between hot dogs and hot dog buns is most likely:

  • (A) Positive (they are substitutes)
  • (B) Negative (they are complements)
  • (C) Zero (they are unrelated)
  • (D) Greater than 1
  • (E) Less than −1

    15. The income elasticity of demand for ramen noodles is likely:

  • (A) Positive and greater than 1 (luxury normal good)
  • (B) Positive but less than 1 (necessity normal good)
  • (C) Negative (inferior good)
  • (D) Zero (independent of income)
  • (E) Perfectly elastic

    16. Consumer surplus is:

  • (A) The difference between price and marginal cost
  • (B) The area above the supply curve and below the price
  • (C) The area below the demand curve and above the equilibrium price
  • (D) The total revenue of producers
  • (E) The government's tax revenue

    17. A $3 per-unit tax is imposed on sellers. The price consumers pay increases by $2 and the price sellers receive decreases by $1. What is the tax incidence?

  • (A) Buyers bear 100% of the tax burden
  • (B) Sellers bear 100% of the tax burden
  • (C) Buyers bear 2/3 and sellers bear 1/3 of the tax burden
  • (D) Buyers bear 1/3 and sellers bear 2/3 of the tax burden
  • (E) The tax is split equally

    18. Deadweight loss from a tax is larger when:

  • (A) Demand and supply are both inelastic
  • (B) Demand and supply are both elastic
  • (C) Only demand is elastic
  • (D) The tax is small
  • (E) The tax revenue is large

    19. A price floor set at the equilibrium price is:

  • (A) Binding and creates a surplus
  • (B) Binding and creates a shortage
  • (C) Non-binding (no market effect)
  • (D) Impossible
  • (E) A subsidy

    20. Which of the following does NOT affect the price elasticity of demand?

  • (A) Availability of close substitutes
  • (B) Proportion of income spent on the good
  • (C) Time horizon
  • (D) The slope of the supply curve
  • (E) Definition of the market (narrow vs. broad)

Production, Costs, and Perfect Competition (Questions 21–36)

21. The law of diminishing marginal returns states that:

  • (A) As more of a variable input is added to fixed inputs, MP will eventually decrease
  • (B) Total output decreases as more inputs are added
  • (C) All costs eventually decrease
  • (D) Demand curves slope downward
  • (E) Economies of scale always exist

    22. Average total cost (ATC) equals:

  • (A) TC/Q
  • (B) (TFC + TVC)/Q
  • (C) AFC + AVC
  • (D) All of the above
  • (E) None of the above

    23. Marginal cost intersects average total cost at the:

  • (A) Maximum point of ATC
  • (B) Minimum point of ATC
  • (C) Point where ATC = AVC
  • (D) Shutdown point
  • (E) Origin

    24. A firm's total fixed cost is $500. At 100 units of output, average variable cost is $8. Average total cost at 100 units is:

  • (A) $5
  • (B) $8
  • (C) $13
  • (D) $1,300
  • (E) $800

    25. In the short run, a firm should shut down if:

  • (A) P < ATC
  • (B) P < AVC
  • (C) P < MC
  • (D) P < AFC
  • (E) TR < TC

    26. In perfect competition, the firm's demand curve is:

  • (A) The market demand curve
  • (B) Downward sloping
  • (C) Perfectly elastic at the market price
  • (D) Upward sloping
  • (E) Kinked

    27. A perfectly competitive firm is producing 50 units, selling at $10 each. TC = $550. In the short run, the firm should:

  • (A) Increase output to maximize profit
  • (B) Decrease output
  • (C) Continue producing at 50 units if P ≥ AVC
  • (D) Shut down because it is losing money
  • (E) Exit the industry

    28. Which of the following is true in a perfectly competitive long-run equilibrium?

  • (A) P = MC = minimum ATC
  • (B) P > MC
  • (C) P < MC
  • (D) Firms earn positive economic profit
  • (E) There are barriers to entry

    29. Economies of scale occur when:

  • (A) LRATC increases as output increases
  • (B) LRATC decreases as output increases
  • (C) MC = ATC
  • (D) The firm shuts down
  • (E) Demand increases

    30. If TC = 1,000 + 5Q + 0.25Q² and P = $20, what is the profit-maximizing output?

  • (A) Q = 20
  • (B) Q = 30
  • (C) Q = 15
  • (D) Q = 60
  • (E) Q = 10

    31. The shutdown point occurs where:

  • (A) P = minimum ATC
  • (B) P = minimum AVC
  • (C) P = minimum AFC
  • (D) MR = MC = 0
  • (E) TC = TVC

    32. Allocative efficiency in perfect competition is achieved when:

  • (A) P = MC
  • (B) P = minimum ATC
  • (C) P > MC
  • (D) MC is minimized
  • (E) ATC is maximized

    33. Productive efficiency requires:

  • (A) P = MC
  • (B) P = minimum ATC
  • (C) MC = AVC
  • (D) Zero economic profit
  • (E) Maximum output

    34. When new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market supply curve shifts:

  • (A) Left, increasing price
  • (B) Right, decreasing price
  • (C) Left, decreasing price
  • (D) Right, increasing price
  • (E) Does not shift

    35. A firm earns $50,000 in accounting profit and $30,000 in economic profit. Its implicit costs are:

  • (A) $20,000
  • (B) $80,000
  • (C) $50,000
  • (D) $30,000
  • (E) Cannot be determined

    36. Which of the following is a fixed cost?

  • (A) Wages of hourly workers
  • (B) Cost of raw materials
  • (C) Rent on a factory building
  • (D) Electricity for production
  • (E) Shipping costs

Imperfect Competition (Questions 37–48)

37. A monopoly differs from a perfectly competitive firm because the monopolist:

  • (A) Produces where P = MC
  • (B) Faces a downward-sloping demand curve
  • (C) Earns zero economic profit in the long run
  • (D) Is a price taker
  • (E) Cannot influence the market price

    38. A profit-maximizing monopolist produces where:

  • (A) P = MC
  • (B) MR = MC
  • (C) MR = P
  • (D) ATC = MC
  • (E) AVC = MC

    39. Which of the following is a source of monopoly power?

  • (A) Free entry and exit
  • (B) Government-issued patent
  • (C) Perfect competition
  • (D) Many small firms
  • (E) Price-taking behavior

    40. Under first-degree (perfect) price discrimination:

  • (A) Consumer surplus is maximized
  • (B) Deadweight loss is maximized
  • (C) Output equals the competitive output level
  • (D) The monopolist earns zero economic profit
  • (E) All consumers pay the same price

    41. Monopolistic competition is characterized by:

  • (A) A single seller
  • (B) Homogeneous products
  • (C) Product differentiation and free entry/exit
  • (D) Significant barriers to entry
  • (E) Interdependent decision-making

    42. In long-run monopolistic competition equilibrium:

  • (A) P = MC and P = minimum ATC
  • (B) P > MC and P = ATC (but above minimum ATC)
  • (C) P = MC but P < ATC
  • (D) Positive economic profit
  • (E) P = minimum ATC

    43. In an oligopoly, firms' decisions are:

  • (A) Independent
  • (B) Interdependent
  • (C) Irrelevant
  • (D) Based on government mandates
  • (E) Always cooperative

    44. In the prisoner's dilemma:

  • (A) Both players always reach the best collective outcome
  • (B) The Nash equilibrium is not the best collective outcome
  • (C) Dominant strategies do not exist
  • (D) Communication solves the problem completely
  • (E) Only one player has a dominant strategy

    45. A natural monopoly exists when:

  • (A) One firm controls all natural resources
  • (B) LRATC declines over the entire range of market output
  • (C) There are many small firms
  • (D) P = MC at all output levels
  • (E) The government prohibits entry

    46. The deadweight loss of a monopoly exists because:

  • (A) The monopolist produces too much
  • (B) The monopolist produces less than the socially optimal quantity (P > MC)
  • (C) Consumer surplus is maximized
  • (D) The monopolist charges the competitive price
  • (E) There is no producer surplus

    47. In a cartel, member firms have an incentive to:

  • (A) Maintain the agreed-upon output quotas
  • (B) Cheat by producing more than their quota
  • (C) Raise prices above the cartel price
  • (D) Admit new members freely
  • (E) Reduce product quality

    48. The kinked demand curve model of oligopoly predicts:

  • (A) Rapid price changes
  • (B) Price rigidity (stable prices despite cost changes)
  • (C) Perfect competition
  • (D) Monopoly pricing
  • (E) Zero economic profit

Factor Markets (Questions 49–54)

49. A profit-maximizing firm will hire workers up to the point where:

  • (A) MRP = wage
  • (B) MRP = MC
  • (C) MP = 0
  • (D) Wage = ATC
  • (E) Wage = AVC

    50. Derived demand means:

  • (A) Demand for labor is derived from consumer sovereignty
  • (B) Demand for a factor of production depends on demand for the product it produces
  • (C) Labor demand is always perfectly inelastic
  • (D) Firms derive revenue from wages
  • (E) Government derives tax revenue from labor markets

    51. In a monopsony labor market:

  • (A) The wage equals MRC
  • (B) The firm hires more workers than a competitive market would
  • (C) MRC exceeds the wage rate
  • (D) Workers have more bargaining power
  • (E) The labor supply curve is perfectly elastic

    52. If the marginal product of labor is 25 units and the marginal revenue per unit of output is $4, the marginal revenue product of labor is:

  • (A) $6.25
  • (B) $21
  • (C) $29
  • (D) $100
  • (E) $0.16

    53. A firm minimizes its cost of production when:

  • (A) MPL/w = MPK/r
  • (B) MPL = MPK
  • (C) w = r
  • (D) MPL/w > MPK/r
  • (E) TC is minimized regardless of output

    54. An increase in the market wage rate in a perfectly competitive labor market will cause:

  • (A) An increase in the quantity of labor demanded
  • (B) A decrease in the quantity of labor demanded (movement along the labor demand curve)
  • (C) An increase in labor demand (shift right)
  • (D) No change in labor demand
  • (E) A decrease in labor supply

Market Failure and Government (Questions 55–60)

55. A negative externality in production results in:

  • (A) Overproduction relative to the socially optimal level
  • (B) Underproduction relative to the socially optimal level
  • (C) The socially optimal level of production
  • (D) Zero production
  • (E) A market surplus

    56. A Pigouvian tax is designed to:

  • (A) Generate maximum government revenue
  • (B) Correct a negative externality by internalizing the external cost
  • (C) Correct a positive externality
  • (D) Create a price ceiling
  • (E) Subsidize producers

    57. Which of the following is a public good?

  • (A) A hamburger
  • (B) National defense
  • (C) A concert ticket
  • (D) A college education
  • (E) A pair of shoes

    58. The free rider problem is most associated with:

  • (A) Private goods
  • (B) Public goods
  • (C) Common resources
  • (D) Club goods
  • (E) Monopolies

    59. The tragedy of the commons occurs when:

  • (A) Public goods are underproduced
  • (B) Common resources are overused because no individual has an incentive to conserve
  • (C) Monopolies charge too high a price
  • (D) Governments interfere with markets
  • (E) External benefits are not captured

    60. The Gini coefficient is a measure of:

  • (A) Price elasticity of demand
  • (B) Economic efficiency
  • (C) Income inequality (0 = perfect equality, 1 = maximum inequality)
  • (D) Consumer surplus
  • (E) Deadweight loss

FREE-RESPONSE SECTION (3 Questions, 60 Minutes)


FRQ 1 (Suggested Time: 25 minutes)

The market for gasoline is initially in equilibrium. Demand for gasoline is relatively inelastic in the short run.

(a) Draw a correctly labeled graph of the gasoline market in equilibrium, showing demand (D), supply (S), equilibrium price (Pe), and equilibrium quantity (Qe).

(b) Suppose the government imposes a $2 per-gallon tax on gasoline producers. On your graph from part (a), show the effect of the tax on the market, clearly labeling:

  • The new equilibrium quantity (Qtax)
  • The price consumers pay (Pc)
  • The price producers receive after the tax (Pp)
  • The tax revenue (shaded and labeled)
  • The deadweight loss (shaded and labeled)

    (c) Given that demand is relatively inelastic, do consumers or producers bear the larger burden of this tax? Explain.

    (d) Will the deadweight loss from this tax be larger or smaller than if demand were perfectly inelastic? Explain.

    (e) Suppose instead the government provides a $2 per-gallon subsidy to gasoline producers. How would the equilibrium price and quantity change compared to the original (no-tax, no-subsidy) equilibrium?

FRQ 2 (Suggested Time: 20 minutes)

Firm X operates as a profit-maximizing monopolist. The demand curve it faces is P = 80 − 2Q, and its total cost is TC = 100 + 10Q + Q².

(a) Calculate the monopolist's profit-maximizing quantity and price. Show your work.

(b) Calculate the monopolist's economic profit or loss at the profit-maximizing output.

(c) Calculate the socially optimal (allocatively efficient) quantity where P = MC.

(d) On a single graph, draw the monopolist's demand, marginal revenue, marginal cost, and average total cost curves. Label the monopoly output (Qm) and price (Pm), and the allocatively efficient output (Qae).

(e) Shade and label the deadweight loss on your graph.

(f) Would a per-unit tax on this monopolist increase or decrease the deadweight loss? Explain.


FRQ 3 (Suggested Time: 15 minutes)

The production of electricity by a coal-burning power plant creates pollution that affects the health of nearby residents.

(a) Is this a positive or negative externality? Explain.

(b) On a graph of the electricity market, draw and label:

  • The private marginal cost curve (MPC)
  • The marginal social cost curve (MSC)
  • The marginal benefit (demand) curve (MSB)
  • The private market equilibrium quantity (Qm) and price (Pm)
  • The socially optimal quantity (Qs) and price (Ps)

    (c) Shade the deadweight loss area on your graph.

    (d) Suppose the government imposes a per-unit tax equal to the marginal external cost. Show the effect on your graph and explain how this achieves the socially optimal outcome.

    (e) Alternatively, instead of a tax, the government could issue tradable pollution permits. Explain how a cap-and-trade system could also achieve the socially optimal level of pollution.

Answer Key & Rubric

AP Microeconomics — Full Practice Exam: Answers and Explanations

Detailed Answer Key with Rationales


MULTIPLE-CHOICE ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS


Basic Economic Concepts (1–10)

1. Answer: A. Scarcity is the fundamental economic problem: human wants are infinite but resources (land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship) are limited. This forces societies to make choices about how to allocate scarce resources.

2. Answer: B. A point inside the PPC indicates that resources are not being fully utilized — there is unemployment or inefficiency. A point on the curve is efficient, and a point outside is unattainable without economic growth.

3. Answer: B. Country A can produce more of both goods (100 > 80 cars, 50 > 40 trucks), so it has an absolute advantage in both. However, opportunity costs are identical for both countries: 1 car = 0.5 trucks for both A and B. Neither has a comparative advantage, and no gains from trade exist.

4. Answer: B. Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative that is given up when making a choice. It is NOT necessarily the monetary price; it includes the value of the forgone opportunity.

5. Answer: C. Technological improvement shifts the PPC outward, representing economic growth (the ability to produce more of all goods). Options A and D represent movements along the curve. Options B and E do not shift the PPC.

6. Answer: C. An increase in the price of coffee causes a decrease in quantity demanded (movement along the demand curve), NOT a decrease in demand (which would be a shift). This is a critical distinction.

7. Answer: B. Tea and coffee are substitutes. A decrease in the price of tea makes consumers switch from coffee to tea, decreasing the demand for coffee (shifting the demand curve left).

8. Answer: A. Market equilibrium occurs at the intersection of demand and supply, where quantity demanded equals quantity supplied. There is no tendency for price or quantity to change.

9. Answer: B. A binding price ceiling below equilibrium creates a shortage because quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied at the artificially low price.

10. Answer: A. A binding price floor above equilibrium creates a surplus because quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded at the artificially high price.


Supply and Demand (11–20)

11. Answer: C. Price elasticity of demand of 2.5 > 1, so demand is elastic. Consumers are relatively responsive to price changes.

12. Answer: B. Ed = |%ΔQd / %ΔP| = |2% / 10%| = 0.2. Since 0.2 < 1, demand is inelastic.

13. Answer: B. When demand is inelastic (Ed < 1), price and total revenue move in the same direction. Increasing price increases TR. When demand is elastic, they move in opposite directions.

14. Answer: B. Hot dogs and hot dog buns are complements (used together), so their cross-price elasticity is negative. An increase in the price of hot dogs decreases the demand for buns.

15. Answer: C. Ramen noodles are typically an inferior good — as income rises, people buy less ramen and switch to higher-quality foods. The income elasticity would be negative.

16. Answer: C. Consumer surplus is the area between the demand curve and the market price (the difference between what consumers are willing to pay and what they actually pay).

17. Answer: C. Buyers bear $2 of the $3 tax burden, and sellers bear $1. So buyers bear 2/3 and sellers bear 1/3. The burden falls more heavily on the side of the market that is less elastic (here, buyers are less elastic).

18. Answer: B. DWL is larger when supply and demand are elastic because the tax causes a larger reduction in quantity traded. With elastic curves, a given tax causes a bigger Q reduction → larger DWL triangle.

19. Answer: C. A price floor set at the equilibrium price is non-binding — it has no effect on the market. It must be set above equilibrium to be binding.

20. Answer: D. Price elasticity of demand depends on: availability of substitutes, proportion of income spent, time horizon, and whether the good is defined broadly (inelastic) or narrowly (elastic). The slope of the supply curve does not affect demand elasticity.


Production, Costs, and Perfect Competition (21–36)

21. Answer: A. The law of diminishing marginal returns states that as more of a variable input is added to a fixed input, the marginal product will eventually decrease. Total output still increases but at a decreasing rate.

22. Answer: D. All three are correct: ATC = TC/Q = (TFC+TVC)/Q = AFC + AVC.

23. Answer: B. MC intersects ATC at its minimum point. When MC < ATC, ATC is falling. When MC > ATC, ATC is rising. They intersect at the turning point.

24. Answer: C. AFC = TFC/Q = 500/100 = $5. AVC = $8. ATC = AFC + AVC = 5 + 8 = $13.

25. Answer: B. The shutdown rule: shut down if P < AVC. At this point, the firm cannot cover its variable costs, so it's better off producing zero and losing only fixed costs.

26. Answer: C. A perfectly competitive firm faces a perfectly elastic (horizontal) demand curve at the market price. The firm is a price taker.

27. Answer: C. TR = 50 × $10 = $500. TC = $550. The firm has a loss of $50. However, we need to check the shutdown rule. FC = unknown but TVC < $500 (since TC = FC + TVC and FC > 0). AVC = TVC/50 < $10. Since P ($10) > AVC (which is less than $10), the firm should continue producing in the short run, covering its variable costs and some fixed costs.

28. Answer: A. In long-run perfect competition: P = MC (allocative efficiency), P = minimum ATC (productive efficiency), and economic profit = zero (free entry and exit).

29. Answer: B. Economies of scale: LRATC decreases as output increases. The firm benefits from increased specialization, bulk purchasing, and other efficiencies of scale.

30. Answer: B. MC = dTC/dQ = 5 + 0.5Q. Set MR = MC: $20 = 5 + 0.5Q → 15 = 0.5Q → Q = 30.

31. Answer: B. The shutdown point is where P = minimum AVC. Below this price, the firm cannot cover variable costs and should shut down.

32. Answer: A. Allocative efficiency: P = MC. This means the last unit produced provides marginal benefit (P) equal to its marginal cost. The socially optimal quantity is produced.

33. Answer: B. Productive efficiency: P = minimum ATC. Goods are produced at the lowest possible per-unit cost. No resources are wasted.

34. Answer: B. New firm entry shifts market supply right, which decreases the market price. This continues until P = minimum ATC and economic profits are zero.

35. Answer: A. Economic profit = Accounting profit − Implicit costs. $30,000 = $50,000 − Implicit costs. Implicit costs = $20,000.

36. Answer: C. Rent on a factory building is a fixed cost — it must be paid regardless of output level. Wages, raw materials, electricity, and shipping are variable costs.


Imperfect Competition (37–48)

37. Answer: B. A monopolist faces the entire downward-sloping market demand curve (unlike a perfectly competitive firm, which faces a horizontal demand curve at the market price).

38. Answer: B. All profit-maximizing firms produce where MR = MC. For a monopolist, this means producing less than the competitive output and charging a price above MC (found on the demand curve).

39. Answer: B. A government patent grants exclusive production rights for a period, creating a legal barrier to entry and establishing monopoly power.

40. Answer: C. Under perfect price discrimination, the monopolist charges each consumer their maximum willingness to pay. This produces the competitive output level (where P = MC for the last unit), eliminates consumer surplus, and eliminates deadweight loss.

41. Answer: C. Monopolistic competition features many firms selling differentiated products with free entry and exit. Product differentiation (branding, quality, features) is the key distinguishing feature.

42. Answer: B. Long-run monopolistic competition: P > MC (allocative inefficiency), P = ATC but ATC > minimum ATC (excess capacity, not productively efficient), zero economic profit.

43. Answer: B. In an oligopoly, firms are interdependent — each firm's optimal strategy depends on what its rivals do. This is what makes oligopoly strategically complex.

44. Answer: B. In the prisoner's dilemma, the Nash equilibrium (each player's dominant strategy) leads to a worse outcome for both players than if they had cooperated. The individually rational choice leads to a collectively suboptimal result.

45. Answer: B. A natural monopoly exists when LRATC declines continuously over the entire range of market demand, making it most efficient for one firm to serve the entire market.

46. Answer: B. A monopoly produces where MR = MC, but charges P > MC. Some consumers who value the good above MC but below P are not served — this creates deadweight loss. The monopoly underproduces relative to the socially optimal level.

47. Answer: B. In a cartel, each firm has a strong incentive to cheat on the agreement (produce more than their quota) because they can sell at the cartel price and earn more profit. Widespread cheating leads to the cartel's collapse.

48. Answer: B. The kinked demand curve model predicts price rigidity — prices tend to stay the same even when costs change. This is because rivals match price decreases (so lowering price gains little) but not price increases (so raising price loses customers).


Factor Markets (49–54)

49. Answer: A. The firm hires workers until MRP = MRC (marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost). In a perfectly competitive labor market, MRC = wage.

50. Answer: B. Derived demand: the demand for labor (and other factors) is derived from the demand for the product that labor produces. If demand for the product increases, demand for labor increases.

51. Answer: C. In a monopsony, the firm faces the upward-sloping market labor supply curve. To hire additional workers, it must raise the wage for ALL workers, so MRC > wage. The firm hires fewer workers and pays a lower wage than in a competitive labor market.

52. Answer: D. MRP = MP × MR = 25 × $4 = $100.

53. Answer: A. The least-cost combination rule: MPL/wage = MPK/rent. This means the marginal product per dollar spent on each input is equal, minimizing total cost for a given output.

54. Answer: B. An increase in the wage causes a decrease in the quantity of labor demanded (movement up along the labor demand curve). It does NOT shift the demand curve itself.


Market Failure and Government (55–60)

55. Answer: A. A negative production externality means the firm's private cost < social cost. The firm produces too much (where MPC = MPB rather than where MSC = MSB).

56. Answer: B. A Pigouvian tax equal to the marginal external cost internalizes the externality, shifting the supply curve to reflect the full social cost and achieving the socially optimal quantity.

57. Answer: B. National defense is a public good: non-excludable (can't prevent anyone from benefiting) and non-rivalrous (one person's consumption doesn't reduce availability for others).

58. Answer: B. The free rider problem occurs with public goods: individuals can benefit without paying, so no one has an incentive to voluntarily pay, leading to underproduction or no production by private markets.

59. Answer: B. The tragedy of the commons: common resources are non-excludable but rivalrous. Since no one owns the resource, individuals overuse it for personal gain, leading to depletion.

60. Answer: C. The Gini coefficient measures income inequality on a scale from 0 (perfect equality — everyone has the same income) to 1 (maximum inequality — one person has all income).


FREE-RESPONSE ANSWERS


FRQ 1 — Gasoline Tax (25 minutes)

(a) Graph requirements:

  • Labeled axes: Price (P) vertical, Quantity (Q) horizontal
  • Downward-sloping demand curve labeled D
  • Upward-sloping supply curve labeled S
  • Intersection labeled as equilibrium (Pe, Qe)

    (b) Tax effect on graph:

  • Supply shifts left (up) by the amount of the $2 tax
  • Label the new supply curve S + tax
  • New quantity Qtax is less than Qe
  • Pc (price consumers pay) is above Pe
  • Pp (price producers receive = Pc − $2) is below Pe
  • Tax revenue: shaded rectangle with height = $2 and width = Qtax, labeled "Tax Revenue"
  • Deadweight loss: shaded triangle between S and S+tax, from Qtax to Qe, labeled "DWL"

    (c) Consumers bear the larger burden. When demand is relatively inelastic (consumers are not very responsive to price changes), the tax burden falls more heavily on consumers. Producers can pass most of the tax onto consumers because consumers don't reduce their purchases significantly. The inelastic side of the market bears more of the tax burden. Mathematically: consumers bear (Pc − Pe) and producers bear (Pe − Pp), and Pc − Pe > Pe − Pp when demand is less elastic than supply.

    (d) The deadweight loss would be ZERO if demand were perfectly inelastic. With perfectly inelastic demand, the quantity demanded does not change regardless of the price. The tax creates no change in quantity, so there is no deadweight loss triangle. DWL = ½ × tax × ΔQ, and ΔQ = 0 when demand is perfectly inelastic.

    (e) With a $2 per-gallon subsidy:

  • Equilibrium quantity increases (supply shifts right/down)
  • Equilibrium price falls (for consumers; the effective price received by producers rises by the subsidy amount)
  • The subsidy encourages more production and consumption than the socially optimal market equilibrium

FRQ 2 — Monopoly (20 minutes)

(a) Profit-maximizing output and price:

  • Demand: P = 80 − 2Q → Total Revenue: TR = 80Q − 2Q² → MR = 80 − 4Q
  • TC = 100 + 10Q + Q² → MC = 10 + 2Q
  • Set MR = MC: 80 − 4Q = 10 + 2Q → 70 = 6Q → Q = 11.67 (or 35/3)
  • P = 80 − 2(35/3) = 80 − 70/3 = 170/3 ≈ $56.67

    (b) Economic profit:

  • TR = 80(35/3) − 2(35/3)² = 2800/3 − 2450/9 = 8400/9 − 2450/9 = 5950/9 ≈ $661.11
  • TC = 100 + 10(35/3) + (35/3)² = 100 + 350/3 + 1225/9 = 900/9 + 1050/9 + 1225/9 = 3175/9 ≈ $352.78
  • Economic Profit = TR − TC = 5950/9 − 3175/9 = 2775/9 ≈ $308.33

    (c) Socially optimal quantity (P = MC):

  • 80 − 2Q = 10 + 2Q → 70 = 4Q → Q = 17.5
  • P = 80 − 2(17.5) = $45

    (d) Graph requirements:

  • Labeled axes: P (vertical), Q (horizontal)
  • Downward-sloping demand curve (D): P = 80 − 2Q
  • Downward-sloping MR curve below D (steeper): MR = 80 − 4Q
  • Upward-sloping MC curve: MC = 10 + 2Q
  • U-shaped ATC curve: ATC = 100/Q + 10 + Q
  • Mark Qm = 35/3 ≈ 11.67, Pm = $56.67 (where MR = MC, price on D)
  • Mark Qae = 17.5, Pae = $45 (where D = MC)

    (e) Deadweight loss:

  • Shade the triangle between Qm and Qae, bounded above by D and below by MC
  • DWL = ½ × (Pm − Pae) × (Qae − Qm) = ½ × ($56.67 − $45) × (17.5 − 11.67) = ½ × $11.67 × 5.83 ≈ $34.02
  • (Or using exact fractions: DWL = ½ × (170/3 − 45) × (35/2 − 35/3) = ½ × (5/6) × (35/6) × ... ≈ $34.03)

    (f) A per-unit tax on the monopolist would INCREASE the deadweight loss. The tax shifts the monopolist's effective MC curve upward, reducing the monopoly's output even further below the socially optimal level. Since the monopoly is already underproducing, reducing output further increases the deadweight loss.

FRQ 3 — Externalities (15 minutes)

(a) This is a NEGATIVE EXTERNAILITY. The coal-burning power plant's production imposes health costs on nearby residents who are not compensated. The firm's private production cost understates the true social cost of production.

(b) Graph requirements:

  • Labeled axes: Price (P) vertical, Quantity (Q) horizontal
  • Downward-sloping MSB (= MPB) curve (demand)
  • Upward-sloping MPC curve (private supply) — below MSC
  • Upward-sloping MSC curve — above MPC by the amount of the external cost
  • Private market equilibrium: intersection of MPC and MPB, labeled Qm and Pm
  • Socially optimal equilibrium: intersection of MSC and MSB, labeled Qs and Ps

    (c) Deadweight loss:

  • Shade the triangle between Qs and Qm, bounded above by MSC and below by MPB (or between MSC and MPC, depending on convention — the DWL is the area where MSC > MSB for units between Qs and Qm)

    (d) Per-unit tax effect:

  • The tax shifts the supply curve up by the amount of the marginal external cost
  • The new supply curve coincides with the MSC curve
  • The new equilibrium occurs at the intersection of MSC and MSB → the socially optimal quantity Qs and price Ps
  • The tax internalizes the externality, making the firm pay the full social cost of production

    (e) Cap-and-trade system:

  • The government sets a total cap on pollution (equal to the socially optimal pollution level)
  • It issues tradable permits allowing firms to emit a specific amount of pollution
  • Firms that can reduce pollution cheaply will sell permits to firms for whom reduction is expensive
  • Through trading, pollution is reduced at the lowest possible cost to society
  • The cap ensures total pollution equals the socially optimal level, achieving efficiency
  • This is economically equivalent to a Pigouvian tax in outcome, but provides more certainty about total pollution quantity (vs. certainty about price with a tax)