Everything below prints as one AP AP Human Geography practice paper set: papers A & B with their answer keys, plus the full-length study package exam. Use the Download PDF / Print button (or Cmd/Ctrl+P) to save it.
Paper A
AP Human Geography — Practice Paper A
Original unofficial practice questions · paper A · answer key on the last page
Total time: see section headers · No guessing penalty
| Section | Questions | Format |
|---|---|---|
| Section I: Multiple Choice | ||
| Section II: Free Response |
Section I — Multiple Choice
The 'where' questions of geography are answered using
A. location and placeB. time zonesC. census data onlyD. maps of religionsA push factor is something that
A. drives people out of an areaB. attracts migrantsC. raises wagesD. builds citiesGentrification typically
A. raises rents and changes a neighborhoodB. lowers housing costsC. removes transitD. spreads povertyThe demographic transition model traces
A. birth and death rates over timeB. trade flowsC. language spreadD. voting patternsAgglomeration economies arise from
A. clustered firms sharing infrastructureB. dispersed farmingC. rural settlementD. isolationA lingua franca is a
A. shared trade languageB. dead languageC. regional dialect onlyD. sign systemUrbanization is the
A. growth of cities relative to countrysideB. decline of citiesC. rise of farmingD. spread of suburbs onlyA nation-state is where
A. political and cultural borders alignB. borders ignore cultureC. many nations uniteD. states dissolveIndustrial location is influenced by
A. transport, labor, and marketsB. climate onlyC. religionD. language familiesA primate city dominates by
A. size and influence over the countryB. population declineC. rural tiesD. equal spreadSection II — Free Response
Define centrifugal forces and give two examples that pull a state apart, then one centripetal force that binds it.
5 points · rubric: Definition 2 pts, examples 2 pts, centripetal 1 pt.
Explain the difference between internal and international migration and identify one consequence of rural-to-urban migration.
5 points · rubric: Difference 2 pts, consequence 2 pts, example 1 pt.
Answer Key
1. location and place — Spatial analysis.
2. drives people out of an area — Negative local condition.
3. raises rents and changes a neighborhood — Displacement risk.
4. birth and death rates over time — Population stages.
5. clustered firms sharing infrastructure — Clustering benefits.
6. shared trade language — Lingua franca.
7. growth of cities relative to countryside — Concentration phenomenon.
8. political and cultural borders align — Congruence.
9. transport, labor, and markets — Site factors.
10. size and influence over the country — Disproportionate share.
Free response — rubric notes
1. Definition 2 pts, examples 2 pts, centripetal 1 pt. · model: Centrifugal = forces dividing states (regional ethnic tensions, unequal development); centripetal = unifying (national culture, shared institutions).
2. Difference 2 pts, consequence 2 pts, example 1 pt. · model: Internal = within a country; international = across borders. Rural-to-urban migration strains housing and services but supplies labor to cities.
Paper B
AP Human Geography — Practice Paper B
Original unofficial practice questions · paper B · answer key on the last page
Total time: see section headers · No guessing penalty
| Section | Questions | Format |
|---|---|---|
| Section I: Multiple Choice | ||
| Section II: Free Response |
Section I — Multiple Choice
The 'where' questions of geography are answered using
A. maps of religionsB. time zonesC. location and placeD. census data onlyA push factor is something that
A. attracts migrantsB. raises wagesC. builds citiesD. drives people out of an areaGentrification typically
A. lowers housing costsB. raises rents and changes a neighborhoodC. spreads povertyD. removes transitThe demographic transition model traces
A. voting patternsB. language spreadC. birth and death rates over timeD. trade flowsAgglomeration economies arise from
A. rural settlementB. clustered firms sharing infrastructureC. dispersed farmingD. isolationA lingua franca is a
A. regional dialect onlyB. sign systemC. shared trade languageD. dead languageUrbanization is the
A. decline of citiesB. spread of suburbs onlyC. rise of farmingD. growth of cities relative to countrysideA nation-state is where
A. states dissolveB. political and cultural borders alignC. many nations uniteD. borders ignore cultureIndustrial location is influenced by
A. climate onlyB. religionC. transport, labor, and marketsD. language familiesA primate city dominates by
A. population declineB. equal spreadC. rural tiesD. size and influence over the countrySection II — Free Response
Define centrifugal forces and give two examples that pull a state apart, then one centripetal force that binds it.
5 points · rubric: Definition 2 pts, examples 2 pts, centripetal 1 pt.
Explain the difference between internal and international migration and identify one consequence of rural-to-urban migration.
5 points · rubric: Difference 2 pts, consequence 2 pts, example 1 pt.
Answer Key
1. location and place — Spatial analysis.
2. drives people out of an area — Negative local condition.
3. raises rents and changes a neighborhood — Displacement risk.
4. birth and death rates over time — Population stages.
5. clustered firms sharing infrastructure — Clustering benefits.
6. shared trade language — Lingua franca.
7. growth of cities relative to countryside — Concentration phenomenon.
8. political and cultural borders align — Congruence.
9. transport, labor, and markets — Site factors.
10. size and influence over the country — Disproportionate share.
Free response — rubric notes
1. Definition 2 pts, examples 2 pts, centripetal 1 pt. · model: Centrifugal = forces dividing states (regional ethnic tensions, unequal development); centripetal = unifying (national culture, shared institutions).
2. Difference 2 pts, consequence 2 pts, example 1 pt. · model: Internal = within a country; international = across borders. Rural-to-urban migration strains housing and services but supplies labor to cities.
Full-length study package exam
AP Human Geography — Full Practice Exam
Section I: Multiple-Choice Questions (60 Questions, 60 Minutes)
Instructions: Select the best answer for each question. Approximately 1 minute per question. The answer key with detailed explanations is provided in a separate file.
Questions 1–10: Unit 1 — Thinking Geographically
1. Which of the following best defines a mental map? A) A computer-generated three-dimensional map
B) A person's internal representation of places and spatial relationships
C) A map showing elevation contours
D) A thematic map of population density
E) A map projection that preserves distance
2. Which of the following is an example of a vernacular region? A) The state of Texas
B) The watershed of the Mississippi River
C) The American South
D) The European Union
E) A school district
3. A map that uses lines connecting points of equal temperature is called a(n): A) Choropleth map
B) Isoline map
C) Dot density map
D) Proportional symbol map
E) Flow map
4. GIS is best described as: A) A system for determining exact location using satellites
B) A computer system for capturing, storing, analyzing, and displaying geographic data
C) A method of acquiring data about Earth's surface from satellites
D) A type of map projection
E) A system for classifying climate zones
5. The theory that the physical environment limits but does not determine human choices is: A) Environmental determinism
B) Cultural ecology
C) Possibilism
D) Spatial analysis
E) Cultural relativism
6. A dot density map showing the distribution of population across the United States would be most useful for visualizing: A) The total population of each state
B) The spatial clustering and dispersal of population
C) The percentage of population that is urban vs. rural
D) The median income of each census tract
E) The racial composition of the population
7. Which of the following is a site factor for the location of a city? A) Proximity to other major cities
B) Access to a navigable river
C) Location along a trade route between two other cities
D) Position relative to a major port
E) The city's role in the national economy
8. The Gall-Peters projection is classified as a(n): A) Conformal projection
B) Equidistant projection
C) Equal-area projection
D) Azimuthal projection
E) Conic projection
9. Remote sensing is most useful for: A) Determining the exact coordinates of a location
B) Storing and analyzing layered geographic data
C) Monitoring environmental changes over large areas from satellites
D) Drawing political boundaries
E) Measuring population density
10. A functional region is best defined as: A) An area where everyone shares a common language
B) An area organized around a central node
C) An area perceived to exist by its inhabitants
D) An area defined by a country's borders
E) An area with a uniform climate
Questions 11–20: Unit 2 — Population and Migration
11. A country has a CBR of 35, a CDR of 10, and a population of 50 million. Approximately how many people are added to the population each year? A) 125,000
B) 500,000
C) 1,250,000
D) 5,000,000
E) 12,500,000
12. Which population pyramid shape indicates a country with declining population growth? A) Wide base, narrow top
B) Narrow base, wider top
C) Rectangular shape
D) Perfect triangle
E) Diamond shape
13. The doubling time of a population with a 2% natural increase rate is approximately: A) 10 years
B) 20 years
C) 35 years
D) 50 years
E) 70 years
14. A person flees their country due to religious persecution and is granted protection in another country. This person is best classified as a(n): A) Economic migrant
B) Guest worker
C) Refugee
D) Internally displaced person
E) Voluntary migrant
15. Which of the following is a pull factor? A) War
B) Famine
C) Job opportunities
D) Political persecution
E) Natural disaster
16. Agricultural density measures: A) Total population per square kilometer
B) Number of farmers per unit of arable land
C) Number of people per unit of arable land
D) Total food production per farmer
E) The percentage of the population engaged in agriculture
17. In Stage 4 of the DTM: A) Birth rates are high and death rates are declining
B) Both birth and death rates are low
C) Death rates exceed birth rates
D) Birth rates exceed death rates by a wide margin
E) Population is growing at its fastest rate
18. The movement of a migrant from a rural village to a small town, then to a regional city, and finally to a megacity is called: A) Chain migration
B) Return migration
C) Step migration
D) Circular migration
E) Forced migration
19. Which of the following is a neo-Malthusian concern? A) Population growth will slow as countries develop
B) Technology will solve all resource scarcity problems
C) Resource depletion and environmental degradation may exceed Earth's carrying capacity
D) Birth rates will fall below replacement level globally
E) Migration will solve population imbalances
20. A country with a TFR of 6.5 is most likely in which stage of the DTM? A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
E) Stage 5
Questions 21–30: Unit 3 — Cultural Patterns and Processes
21. The spread of a new fashion trend from Paris to major world cities, then to smaller towns, is an example of: A) Relocation diffusion
B) Hierarchical diffusion
C) Contagious diffusion
D) Stimulus diffusion
E) Reverse diffusion
22. Which of the following is a universalizing religion? A) Hinduism
B) Judaism
C) Shinto
D) Christianity
E) Daoism
23. The area where a cultural trait originates is called the: A) Cultural realm
B) Cultural landscape
C) Hearth
D) Diffusion zone
E) Cultural region
24. Which language family includes English, Spanish, Russian, and Hindi? A) Sino-Tibetan
B) Niger-Congo
C) Indo-European
D) Afro-Asiatic
E) Austronesian
25. The blending of Catholicism with indigenous religious practices in Latin America is an example of: A) Cultural extinction
B) Assimilation
C) Syncretism
D) Cultural relativism
E) Ethnocentrism
26. Which of the following is characteristic of folk culture rather than popular culture? A) Rapid change and innovation
B) Transmission through mass media
C) Strong ties to a specific local environment
D) Global distribution
E) Standardized products
27. When the general principle of fast food spread globally but the specific menu was adapted to local tastes, this is: A) Relocation diffusion
B) Hierarchical diffusion
C) Contagious diffusion
D) Stimulus diffusion
E) Maladaptive diffusion
28. A diaspora refers to: A) The extinction of a language
B) The scattering of a cultural group from their homeland
C) The blending of two cultures
D) The adoption of a new religion
E) The creation of a new cultural landscape
29. Islam is divided primarily into which two branches? A) Catholic and Orthodox
B) Sunni and Shia
C) Theravada and Mahayana
D) Reform and Conservative
E) Eastern and Western
30. Which of the following is the best example of acculturation? A) An indigenous community completely abandoning its traditional practices
B) An immigrant community adopting some customs of their new country while maintaining their original culture
C) A government banning the use of minority languages
D) Two cultures remaining completely separate
E) A cultural trait dying out without replacement
Questions 31–40: Unit 4 — Political Organization of Space
31. A state in which the territory is occupied primarily by one ethnic group is best described as a: A) Multinational state
B) Nation-state
C) Stateless nation
D) Multistate nation
E) Buffer state
32. Which of the following is a centrifugal force? A) A shared national holiday
B) A common language
C) Ethnic conflict between regions
D) An effective education system
E) National sports teams
33. A boundary drawn without regard to existing cultural patterns by an outside power is called: A) An antecedent boundary
B) A subsequent boundary
C) A superimposed boundary
D) A relic boundary
E) A natural boundary
34. The United Nations is an example of: A) A nation-state
B) A supranational organization
C) A multinational state
D) A colonial empire
E) A buffer state
35. Which theory argues that whoever controls the Rimland controls Eurasia and thus the world? A) Heartland Theory
B) Rimland Theory
C) Domino Theory
D) World Systems Theory
E) Rostow's model
36. The process of redrawing electoral district boundaries to favor a political party is: A) Annexation
B) Gerrymandering
C) Irredentism
D) Devolution
E) Supranationalism
37. Catalonia's push for greater autonomy within Spain is an example of: A) Irredentism
B) Supranationalism
C) Devolution
D) Colonialism
E) Imperialism
38. A country that contains multiple ethnic groups with traditions of self-determination is a: A) Nation-state
B) Stateless nation
C) Multinational state
D) Buffer state
E) Satellite state
39. The Berlin Wall, which no longer functions as a political boundary, is an example of a: A) Superimposed boundary
B) Antecedent boundary
C) Subsequent boundary
D) Relic boundary
E) Geometric boundary
40. Which of the following best defines sovereignty? A) Control of a territory by a foreign power
B) Supreme authority over a state's internal and foreign affairs
C) Shared governance between two states
D) The ability to veto international agreements
E) Economic dominance over other states
Questions 41–50: Unit 5 — Agriculture and Rural Land-Use
41. The Neolithic Revolution refers to: A) The development of industrial agriculture
B) The domestication of plants and animals
C) The invention of the tractor
D) The Green Revolution
E) The development of genetic engineering
42. In von Thünen's model, the outermost ring is typically used for: A) Dairying
B) Grain farming
C) Livestock ranching
D) Timber production
E) Vegetable farming
43. Which of the following is a characteristic of plantation agriculture? A) Small-scale, diversified farming
B) Large-scale, single-crop commercial agriculture in tropical regions
C) Subsistence farming in arid regions
D) Seasonal movement of herders
E) Intensive rice cultivation
44. The Green Revolution is most closely associated with: A) Norman Borlaug
B) Johann von Thünen
C) Carl Sauer
D) Thomas Malthus
E) Ernst Ravenstein
45. Which agricultural practice involves the seasonal movement of livestock? A) Shifting cultivation
B) Intensive subsistence agriculture
C) Transhumance
D) Plantation agriculture
E) Mixed crop and livestock farming
46. The Second Agricultural Revolution was characterized by: A) The initial domestication of wheat and barley
B) Improved crop rotation, selective breeding, and machinery
C) The development of high-yield varieties
D) The rise of organic farming
E) The establishment of colonial plantations
47. Which of the following best describes intensive subsistence agriculture? A) Large-scale mechanized grain farming
B) High-input farming on small plots, common in densely populated Asia
C) Cattle ranching on open range
D) Shifting cultivation in tropical forests
E) Fruit farming in Mediterranean climates
48. A key assumption of von Thünen's model is that: A) There are multiple market centers
B) The landscape has varied soil quality
C) Transportation cost is proportional to distance
D) Farmers grow multiple crops simultaneously
E) Climate varies significantly across the region
49. Which agricultural hearth is associated with rice domestication? A) Fertile Crescent
B) Mesoamerica
C) Yangtze River Valley
D) Andes Mountains
E) Sub-Saharan Africa
50. Monoculture refers to: A) The cultivation of multiple crop varieties
B) Dependence on a single agricultural commodity
C) Farming without chemical inputs
D) Seasonal movement of herders
E) The mixing of crops and livestock
Questions 51–60: Units 6–7 — Cities and Economic Development
51. The Burgess concentric zone model places which zone at the center? A) Zone of working-class homes
B) Commuter zone
C) Central Business District
D) Zone of transition
E) Industrial zone
52. A city with a population exceeding 10 million is called a: A) World city
B) Primate city
C) Megacity
D) Edge city
E) Global city
53. The galactic city model is characterized by: A) A single dominant CBD
B) Concentric rings of land use
C) Edge cities connected by highway corridors
D) High-density pedestrian-oriented neighborhoods
E) Agricultural land use within city limits
54. Which of the following is a characteristic of urban sprawl? A) High-density, mixed-use development
B) Walkable neighborhoods with public transit
C) Low-density, automobile-dependent development on the urban fringe
D) Concentration of economic activity in a single center
E) Preservation of agricultural land
55. In Rostow's model, Stage 5 is the: A) Traditional Society
B) Preconditions for Takeoff
C) Takeoff
D) Drive to Maturity
E) Age of Mass Consumption
56. Which of the following is the best example of a core country? A) Bangladesh
B) Niger
C) Germany
D) Bolivia
E) Cambodia
57. The clustering of technology companies in Silicon Valley is an example of: A) Deglomeration
B) Comparative advantage
C) Agglomeration
D) Export processing
E) Subsistence economy
58. A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is an area with: A) Strict environmental regulations
B) Special economic regulations different from the rest of the country to attract foreign investment
C) No international trade allowed
D) Only agricultural activities permitted
E) UN administration
59. The Human Development Index includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Life expectancy
B) Education level
C) GNI per capita
D) Military spending
E) Expected years of schooling
60. Which of the following is a centripetal force in a state? A) Regional ethnic conflict
B) A strong national identity and shared symbols
C) Economic inequality between regions
D) A separatist political movement
E) Physical barriers isolating a region
Section II: Free-Response Questions (3 Questions, 75 Minutes)
Instructions: Answer all three free-response questions. You have 75 minutes total. Each question is worth 7 points. Spend approximately 25 minutes per question. Use specific geographic vocabulary, provide explanations and examples, and demonstrate spatial thinking.
FRQ 1 (No Stimulus) — 7 Points
A. (1 point) Define the Demographic Transition Model.
B. (1 point) Describe the population characteristics of a country in Stage 2 of the DTM.
C. (1 point) Explain ONE reason why a country might have difficulty transitioning from Stage 2 to Stage 3.
D. (1 point) Explain how government policy can accelerate the transition from Stage 2 to Stage 3.
E. (3 points) Identify a real-world country currently in Stage 2 of the DTM and:
- i. Provide one piece of evidence supporting your identification
- ii. Describe one social challenge this country faces due to its demographic stage
- iii. Propose one specific policy intervention to address the challenge you described
FRQ 2 (One Stimulus) — 7 Points
Stimulus: A map showing the boundaries of African countries superimposed on an ethnic/linguistic map of the continent. The boundaries are shown as straight lines that cut across ethnic/linguistic group territories.
A. (1 point) Identify the type of boundary that most African countries have, based on the stimulus.
B. (2 points) Explain how these boundaries have contributed to political instability in Africa. Use specific evidence from the stimulus map in your explanation.
C. (1 point) Describe ONE way African countries or the African Union has attempted to address the challenges created by these boundaries.
D. (3 points) Compare the boundary situation in Africa with another world region where colonial powers drew boundaries:
- i. Identify the other region
- ii. Describe ONE similarity between the boundary challenges in both regions
- iii. Describe ONE difference
FRQ 3 (Two Stimuli) — 7 Points
Stimulus 1: A population pyramid for Japan showing a narrow base and wide top (constrictive pyramid).
Stimulus 2: A population pyramid for Niger showing a wide base and narrow top (expansive pyramid).
A. (1 point) Identify the stage of the DTM for each country shown in the population pyramids.
B. (2 points) Describe TWO challenges that Japan's population structure creates for its economy.
C. (2 points) Describe TWO challenges that Niger's population structure creates for its government.
D. (2 points) Explain ONE policy that each country could implement to address its demographic challenge.
Answer Recording Sheet
Section I — Multiple Choice
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 11 | 21 | 31 | 41 | 51 | ||||||
| 2 | 12 | 22 | 32 | 42 | 52 | ||||||
| 3 | 13 | 23 | 33 | 43 | 53 | ||||||
| 4 | 14 | 24 | 34 | 44 | 54 | ||||||
| 5 | 15 | 25 | 35 | 45 | 55 | ||||||
| 6 | 16 | 26 | 36 | 46 | 56 | ||||||
| 7 | 17 | 27 | 37 | 47 | 57 | ||||||
| 8 | 18 | 28 | 38 | 48 | 58 | ||||||
| 9 | 19 | 29 | 39 | 49 | 59 | ||||||
| 10 | 20 | 30 | 40 | 50 | 60 |
Section II — Free-Response Planning Space
| FRQ | Key Terms Used | Main Points |
|---|---|---|
| FRQ 1 | ||
| FRQ 2 | ||
| FRQ 3 |
Check your answers in the companion file: 15-Full-Exam-Answers.md
Answer Key & Rubric
AP Human Geography — Full Practice Exam with Answers
Section I: Multiple-Choice Questions (60 Questions, 60 Minutes)
Questions 1–10: Unit 1 — Thinking Geographically
1. Which of the following best defines a mental map? A) A computer-generated three-dimensional map
B) A person's internal representation of places and spatial relationships
C) A map showing elevation contours
D) A thematic map of population density
E) A map projection that preserves distance
Answer: B
2. Which of the following is an example of a vernacular region? A) The state of Texas
B) The watershed of the Mississippi River
C) The American South
D) The European Union
E) A school district
Answer: C. The American South is a perceptual/vernacular region with no precise boundaries but a strong cultural identity.
3. A map that uses lines connecting points of equal temperature is called a(n): A) Choropleth map
B) Isoline map
C) Dot density map
D) Proportional symbol map
E) Flow map
Answer: B
4. GIS is best described as: A) A system for determining exact location using satellites
B) A computer system for capturing, storing, analyzing, and displaying geographic data
C) A method of acquiring data about Earth's surface from satellites
D) A type of map projection
E) A system for classifying climate zones
Answer: B
5. The theory that the physical environment limits but does not determine human choices is: A) Environmental determinism
B) Cultural ecology
C) Possibilism
D) Spatial analysis
E) Cultural relativism
Answer: C
6. A dot density map showing the distribution of population across the United States would be most useful for visualizing: A) The total population of each state
B) The spatial clustering and dispersal of population
C) The percentage of population that is urban vs. rural
D) The median income of each census tract
E) The racial composition of the population
Answer: B
7. Which of the following is a site factor for the location of a city? A) Proximity to other major cities
B) Access to a navigable river
C) Location along a trade route between two other cities
D) Position relative to a major port
E) The city's role in the national economy
Answer: B. Site factors are physical characteristics of the location itself.
8. The Gall-Peters projection is classified as a(n): A) Conformal projection
B) Equidistant projection
C) Equal-area projection
D) Azimuthal projection
E) Conic projection
Answer: C
9. Remote sensing is most useful for: A) Determining the exact coordinates of a location
B) Storing and analyzing layered geographic data
C) Monitoring environmental changes over large areas from satellites
D) Drawing political boundaries
E) Measuring population density
Answer: C
10. A functional region is best defined as: A) An area where everyone shares a common language
B) An area organized around a central node
C) An area perceived to exist by its inhabitants
D) An area defined by a country's borders
E) An area with a uniform climate
Answer: B
Questions 11–20: Unit 2 — Population and Migration
11. A country has a CBR of 35, a CDR of 10, and a population of 50 million. Approximately how many people are added to the population each year? A) 125,000
B) 500,000
C) 1,250,000
D) 5,000,000
E) 12,500,000
Answer: C. NIR = 35 - 10 = 25 per 1,000 = 2.5%. 50,000,000 × 0.025 = 1,250,000.
12. Which population pyramid shape indicates a country with declining population growth? A) Wide base, narrow top
B) Narrow base, wider top
C) Rectangular shape
D) Perfect triangle
E) Diamond shape
Answer: B. A constrictive pyramid with a narrow base indicates low birth rates and an aging population.
13. The doubling time of a population with a 2% natural increase rate is approximately: A) 10 years
B) 20 years
C) 35 years
D) 50 years
E) 70 years
Answer: C. Doubling time ≈ 70 / NIR = 70 / 2 = 35 years.
14. A person flees their country due to religious persecution and is granted protection in another country. This person is best classified as a(n): A) Economic migrant
B) Guest worker
C) Refugee
D) Internally displaced person
E) Voluntary migrant
Answer: C
15. Which of the following is a pull factor? A) War
B) Famine
C) Job opportunities
D) Political persecution
E) Natural disaster
Answer: C
16. Agricultural density measures: A) Total population per square kilometer
B) Number of farmers per unit of arable land
C) Number of people per unit of arable land
D) Total food production per farmer
E) The percentage of the population engaged in agriculture
Answer: B
17. In Stage 4 of the DTM: A) Birth rates are high and death rates are declining
B) Both birth and death rates are low
C) Death rates exceed birth rates
D) Birth rates exceed death rates by a wide margin
E) Population is growing at its fastest rate
Answer: B
18. The movement of a migrant from a rural village to a small town, then to a regional city, and finally to a megacity is called: A) Chain migration
B) Return migration
C) Step migration
D) Circular migration
E) Forced migration
Answer: C
19. Which of the following is a neo-Malthusian concern? A) Population growth will slow as countries develop
B) Technology will solve all resource scarcity problems
C) Resource depletion and environmental degradation may exceed Earth's carrying capacity
D) Birth rates will fall below replacement level globally
E) Migration will solve population imbalances
Answer: C
20. A country with a TFR of 6.5 is most likely in which stage of the DTM? A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
E) Stage 5
Answer: B. A very high TFR is characteristic of Stage 2 countries where death rates have fallen but birth rates remain high.
Questions 21–30: Unit 3 — Cultural Patterns and Processes
21. The spread of a new fashion trend from Paris to major world cities, then to smaller towns, is an example of: A) Relocation diffusion
B) Hierarchical diffusion
C) Contagious diffusion
D) Stimulus diffusion
E) Reverse diffusion
Answer: B
22. Which of the following is a universalizing religion? A) Hinduism
B) Judaism
C) Shinto
D) Christianity
E) Daoism
Answer: D
23. The area where a cultural trait originates is called the: A) Cultural realm
B) Cultural landscape
C) Hearth
D) Diffusion zone
E) Cultural region
Answer: C
24. Which language family includes English, Spanish, Russian, and Hindi? A) Sino-Tibetan
B) Niger-Congo
C) Indo-European
D) Afro-Asiatic
E) Austronesian
Answer: C
25. The blending of Catholicism with indigenous religious practices in Latin America is an example of: A) Cultural extinction
B) Assimilation
C) Syncretism
D) Cultural relativism
E) Ethnocentrism
Answer: C
26. Which of the following is characteristic of folk culture rather than popular culture? A) Rapid change and innovation
B) Transmission through mass media
C) Strong ties to a specific local environment
D) Global distribution
E) Standardized products
Answer: C
27. When the general principle of fast food spread globally but the specific menu was adapted to local tastes, this is: A) Relocation diffusion
B) Hierarchical diffusion
C) Contagious diffusion
D) Stimulus diffusion
E) Maladaptive diffusion
Answer: D
28. A diaspora refers to: A) The extinction of a language
B) The scattering of a cultural group from their homeland
C) The blending of two cultures
D) The adoption of a new religion
E) The creation of a new cultural landscape
Answer: B
29. Islam is divided primarily into which two branches? A) Catholic and Orthodox
B) Sunni and Shia
C) Theravada and Mahayana
D) Reform and Conservative
E) Eastern and Western
Answer: B
30. Which of the following is the best example of acculturation? A) A indigenous community completely abandoning its traditional practices
B) An immigrant community adopting some customs of their new country while maintaining their original culture
C) A government banning the use of minority languages
D) Two cultures remaining completely separate
E) A cultural trait dying out without replacement
Answer: B
Questions 31–40: Unit 4 — Political Organization of Space
31. A state in which the territory is occupied primarily by one ethnic group is best described as a: A) Multinational state
B) Nation-state
C) Stateless nation
D) Multistate nation
E) Buffer state
Answer: B
32. Which of the following is a centrifugal force? A) A shared national holiday
B) A common language
C) Ethnic conflict between regions
D) An effective education system
E) National sports teams
Answer: C
33. A boundary drawn without regard to existing cultural patterns by an outside power is called: A) An antecedent boundary
B) A subsequent boundary
C) A superimposed boundary
D) A relic boundary
E) A natural boundary
Answer: C
34. The United Nations is an example of: A) A nation-state
B) A supranational organization
C) A multinational state
D) A colonial empire
E) A buffer state
Answer: B
35. Which theory argues that whoever controls the Rimland controls Eurasia and thus the world? A) Heartland Theory
B) Rimland Theory
C) Domino Theory
D) World Systems Theory
E) Rostow's model
Answer: B. Spykman's Rimland Theory countered Mackinder's Heartland Theory.
36. The process of redrawing electoral district boundaries to favor a political party is: A) Annexation
B) Gerrymandering
C) Irredentism
D) Devolution
E) Supranationalism
Answer: B
37. Catalonia's push for greater autonomy within Spain is an example of: A) Irredentism
B) Supranationalism
C) Devolution
D) Colonialism
E) Imperialism
Answer: C
38. A country that contains multiple ethnic groups with traditions of self-determination is a: A) Nation-state
B) Stateless nation
C) Multinational state
D) Buffer state
E) Satellite state
Answer: C
39. The Berlin Wall, which no longer functions as a political boundary, is an example of a: A) Superimposed boundary
B) Antecedent boundary
C) Subsequent boundary
D) Relic boundary
E) Geometric boundary
Answer: D
40. Which of the following best defines sovereignty? A) Control of a territory by a foreign power
B) Supreme authority over a state's internal and foreign affairs
C) Shared governance between two states
D) The ability to veto international agreements
E) Economic dominance over other states
Answer: B
Questions 41–50: Unit 5 — Agriculture and Rural Land-Use
41. The Neolithic Revolution refers to: A) The development of industrial agriculture
B) The domestication of plants and animals
C) The invention of the tractor
D) The Green Revolution
E) The development of genetic engineering
Answer: B
42. In von Thünen's model, the outermost ring is typically used for: A) Dairying
B) Grain farming
C) Livestock ranching
D) Timber production
E) Vegetable farming
Answer: C
43. Which of the following is a characteristic of plantation agriculture? A) Small-scale, diversified farming
B) Large-scale, single-crop commercial agriculture in tropical regions
C) Subsistence farming in arid regions
D) Seasonal movement of herders
E) Intensive rice cultivation
Answer: B
44. The Green Revolution is most closely associated with: A) Norman Borlaug
B) Johann von Thünen
C) Carl Sauer
D) Thomas Malthus
E) Ernst Ravenstein
Answer: A
45. Which agricultural practice involves the seasonal movement of livestock? A) Shifting cultivation
B) Intensive subsistence agriculture
C) Transhumance
D) Plantation agriculture
E) Mixed crop and livestock farming
Answer: C
46. The Second Agricultural Revolution was characterized by: A) The initial domestication of wheat and barley
B) Improved crop rotation, selective breeding, and machinery
C) The development of high-yield varieties
D) The rise of organic farming
E) The establishment of colonial plantations
Answer: B
47. Which of the following best describes intensive subsistence agriculture? A) Large-scale mechanized grain farming
B) High-input farming on small plots, common in densely populated Asia
C) Cattle ranching on open range
D) Shifting cultivation in tropical forests
E) Fruit farming in Mediterranean climates
Answer: B
48. A key assumption of von Thünen's model is that: A) There are multiple market centers
B) The landscape has varied soil quality
C) Transportation cost is proportional to distance
D) Farmers grow multiple crops simultaneously
E) Climate varies significantly across the region
Answer: C
49. Which agricultural hearth is associated with rice domestication? A) Fertile Crescent
B) Mesoamerica
C) Yangtze River Valley
D) Andes Mountains
E) Sub-Saharan Africa
Answer: C
50. Monoculture refers to: A) The cultivation of multiple crop varieties
B) Dependence on a single agricultural commodity
C) Farming without chemical inputs
D) Seasonal movement of herders
E) The mixing of crops and livestock
Answer: B
Questions 51–60: Units 6–7 — Cities and Economic Development
51. The Burgess concentric zone model places which zone at the center? A) Zone of working-class homes
B) Commuter zone
C) Central Business District
D) Zone of transition
E) Industrial zone
Answer: C
52. A city with a population exceeding 10 million is called a: A) World city
B) Primate city
C) Megacity
D) Edge city
E) Global city
Answer: C
53. The galactic city model is characterized by: A) A single dominant CBD
B) Concentric rings of land use
C) Edge cities connected by highway corridors
D) High-density pedestrian-oriented neighborhoods
E) Agricultural land use within city limits
Answer: C
54. Which of the following is a characteristic of urban sprawl? A) High-density, mixed-use development
B) Walkable neighborhoods with public transit
C) Low-density, automobile-dependent development on the urban fringe
D) Concentration of economic activity in a single center
E) Preservation of agricultural land
Answer: C
55. In Rostow's model, Stage 5 is the: A) Traditional Society
B) Preconditions for Takeoff
C) Takeoff
D) Drive to Maturity
E) Age of Mass Consumption
Answer: E
56. Which of the following is the best example of a core country? A) Bangladesh
B) Niger
C) Germany
D) Bolivia
E) Cambodia
Answer: C
57. The clustering of technology companies in Silicon Valley is an example of: A) Deglomeration
B) Comparative advantage
C) Agglomeration
D) Export processing
E) Subsistence economy
Answer: C
58. A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is an area with: A) Strict environmental regulations
B) Special economic regulations different from the rest of the country to attract foreign investment
C) No international trade allowed
D) Only agricultural activities permitted
E) UN administration
Answer: B
59. The Human Development Index includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Life expectancy
B) Education level
C) GNI per capita
D) Military spending
E) Expected years of schooling
Answer: D
60. Which of the following is a centripetal force in a state? A) Regional ethnic conflict
B) A strong national identity and shared symbols
C) Economic inequality between regions
D) A separatist political movement
E) Physical barriers isolating a region
Answer: B
Section II: Free-Response Questions (3 Questions, 75 Minutes)
FRQ 1 (No Stimulus)
A. Define the Demographic Transition Model. B. Describe the population characteristics of a country in Stage 2 of the DTM. C. Explain ONE reason why a country might have difficulty transitioning from Stage 2 to Stage 3. D. Explain how government policy can accelerate the transition from Stage 2 to Stage 3.
Scoring Rubric:
- Part A (1 point): Defines the DTM as a model describing the shift from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as a country industrializes.
- Part B (1 point): Describes high birth rates, rapidly declining death rates, and rapid population growth.
- Part C (1 point): Explains a barrier such as lack of access to contraception, low women's education, religious or cultural norms favoring large families, or lack of economic development.
- Part D (1 point): Explains a policy such as family planning programs, investment in girls' education, or economic development initiatives.
FRQ 2 (One Stimulus)
Stimulus: A map showing the boundaries of African countries superimposed on an ethnic/linguistic map of the continent.
A. Identify the type of boundary that most African countries have, based on the stimulus. B. Explain how these boundaries have contributed to political instability in Africa. C. Describe ONE way African countries or the African Union has attempted to address the challenges created by these boundaries.
Scoring Rubric:
- Part A (1 point): Identifies superimposed boundaries.
- Part B (1 point): Explains that the boundaries divided ethnic groups and grouped rival groups, leading to conflict and weak national cohesion.
- Part C (1 point): Describes efforts such as the African Union promoting continental cooperation, or specific countries adopting federal systems to accommodate diversity.
FRQ 3 (Two Stimuli)
Stimulus 1: A population pyramid for Japan (narrow base, wide top). Stimulus 2: A population pyramid for Niger (wide base, narrow top).
A. Identify the stage of the DTM for each country shown in the population pyramids. B. Describe ONE challenge that Japan's population structure creates for its economy. C. Describe ONE challenge that Niger's population structure creates for its government. D. Explain ONE policy that Japan could implement to address its demographic challenge.
Scoring Rubric:
- Part A (1 point): Japan = Stage 5, Niger = Stage 2.
- Part B (1 point): Describes challenges such as labor shortages, increased dependency ratio, or strain on pension and healthcare systems.
- Part C (1 point): Describes challenges such as providing education and healthcare for a rapidly growing young population, or creating enough jobs.
- Part D (1 point): Explains policies such as encouraging immigration, providing childcare support, or implementing pro-natalist incentives.